If you possessed little interest in politics, did not vote, and are not registered to vote, why would you donate the maximum amount allowed under campaign finance laws? And further, how could someone persuade you to part with $2300/ person or $4600/ couple?
I ask because published a story about campaign finance. http://www.blogger.com/img/gl.link.gif In the article, the writer discusses numerous individuals, who are from middle-class backgrounds and show no political interests, yet they donated the maximum possible. All of these individuals wre persuaded to donate the maximum allowed by a political "bundler."
Either the actions of the bundler are not on the level, and there is not evidence that this view is correct, or there are serious flaws with campaign finance laws.
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